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MANAGEMENT
1008 JUNE 2002 THE COMPETITION MASTER
Solved CAT-2001 Paper
Questions 1-60 were published in May issue. Balance questions
alongwith answers are given below:
PASSAGE�III
The Union government's position vis-a-vis the United Nations
conference on racial and related discrimination world-wide seems to be the
following: discuss race please, not caste; caste is our very own and not at
all as bad as you think. The gross hypocrisy of that position has been lucidly
underscored by Kancha Ilaiah. Explicitly, the world community is to be cheated
out of considering the matter on the technicality that caste is not, as a
concept, tantamount to a racial category. Internally, however, allowing the
issue to be put on agenda at the said conference would, we are particularly
admonished, damage the country's image. Somehow, India's spiritual beliefs
elbow out concrete actualities. Inverted representations, as we know, have
often been deployed in human histories as balm for the forsaken�religion
being most persistent of such inversions. Yet, we would humbly submit that
if globalising our markets are thought good for the 'national' pocket, globalising
our social inequities might not be so bad for the mass of our people. After
all, racism was as uniquely institutionalised in South Africa as caste
discrimination has been within our society; why then can't we permit the
world community to express itself on the latter with a fraction of the zeal with
which, through the years, we pronounced on the former? As to the technicality
about whether or not caste is admissible into an agenda about race (that the
conference is also about 'related discriminations' tends to be forgotten), a
reputed sociologist has recently argued that where race is a 'biological'
category caste is a 'social' one.
Having earlier fiercely opposed implementation of the Mandal
Commission Report, the said sociologist is at least to be complemented
now for admitting, however tangentially, that caste discrimination is a reality,
although in his view, incompatible with racial discrimination. One would like
quickly to offer the hypothesis that biology, in important ways that affect the
lives of many millions, is in itself perhaps a social construction. But let us
look at the matter in another way. If it is agreed�as per the position today
at which anthropological and allied scientific determinations rest�that the
entire race of homo-sapiens derived from an originally black African female
(called 'Eve') then one is hard put to understand how, on some subsequent
ground, ontological distinctions are to be drawn either between races or
castes. Let us also underline the distinction between the supposition that we
are all God's children and the rather more substantiated argument about our
descent from "Eve", lest both positions are thought to be equally diversionary.
It then stands to reason that all subsequent distinctions are, in modern
parlance, 'constructed' ones, and, like all ideological constructions, attributable
to changing equations between knowledge and power among human
communities through contested histories here, there, and elsewhere.
This line of thought receives, thankfully, extremely consequential
buttress from the findings of the Human Genome Project. Contrary to earlier
(chiefly 19th Century colonial) persuasions on the subject of race, as well
as, one might add, the somewhat infamous Jensen offering in the 20th
century from America, those findings deny genetic difference between 'races'.
If anything, they suggest that environmental factors impinge on gene-function,
as a dialectic seems to unfold between nature and culture. It would thus
seem that 'biology' as the constitution of pigmentation enters the picture first
only as a part of that dialectic. Taken together, the originally mother stipulation
and the Genome findings ought indeed to furnish ground for human equality
across the board, as well as yield policy initiatives towards equitable material
dispensations aimed at building a global order where, in Hegel's stirring
formulation, only the rational constitutes the right. Such, sadly, is not the
case as everyday fresh arbitrary grounds for discrimination are constructed
in the interests of sectional dominance.
61. According to the author, 'inverted representations as balm for the
forsaken':
( a) is good for the forsaken and often deployed in human histories.
( b) is good for the forsaken, but not often deployed historically for
the oppressed.
( c) occurs often as a means of keeping people oppressed.
( d) occurs often to invert the status quo.
62. When the author writes "globalising our social inequities", the
reference is to:
( a) going beyond an internal deliberation on social inequity.
( b) dealing with internal poverty through the economic benefits of
globalisation.
( c) going beyond an internal delimitation of social inequity.
( d) achieving disadvantaged people's empowerment, globally.
63. According to the author, the sociologist who argued that race is
a 'biological' category and caste is a 'social' one:
( a) generally shares the same orientation as the author's on many
of the central issues discussed.
( b) tangentially admits to the existence of 'caste' as a category.
( c) admits the incompatibility between the people of different race
and caste.
( d) admits indirectly that both caste-based prejudice and racial
discrimination exist.
64. An important message in the passage, if one accepts a dialectic
between nature and culture, is that:
( a) the result of the Human Genome Project reinforces racial
differences.
( b) race is at least partially a social construct.
( c) discrimination is at least partially a social construct.
( d) caste is at least partially a social construct.
65. Based on the passage, which of the following unambiguously fall
under the purview of the UN conference being discussed?
A. Racial prejudice.
B. Racial Pride.
C. Discrimination, racial or otherwise.
D. Caste-related discrimination.
( a) A, E (b) C, E
( c) A, C, E ( d) B, C, D
PASSAGE IV
In modern scientific story, light was created not once but twice. The
first time was in the Big Bang, when the universe began its existence as
a glowing, expanding, fireball, which cooled off into darkness after a few
million years. The second time was hundreds of millions of year later, when
the cold material condensed into dense nuggets under the influence of
gravity, and ignited to become the first stars.
Sir Martin Rees, Britain's astronomer royal, named the long interval
between these two enlightenments the cosmic "Dark Age". The name
describes not only the poorly lit conditions, but also the ignorance of
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1009 JUNE 2002 THE COMPETITION MASTER
astronomers about that period. Nobody knows exactly when the first stars
formed, or how they organised themselves into galaxies or even whether
stars were the first luminous objects. They may have been preceded by
quasars, which are mysterious, bright spots found at the centres of some
galaxies. Now, two independent groups of astronomers, one led by Robert
Becker of the University of California, and the other by George Djorgovski
of Caltech, claim to have peered far enough into space with their telescopes
(and therefore backwards enough in time) to observe the closing days of the
Dark Age.
The main problem that plagued previous efforts to study the Dark Age
was not the lack of suitable telescopes, but rather the lack of suitable things
at which to point them. Because these events took place over 13 billion
years ago, if astronomers are to have any hope of unravelling them they
must study objects that are at least 13 billion light years away. The best
prospects are quasars, because they are so bright and compact that they
can be seen across vast stretches of space. The energy source that powers
a quasar is unknown, although it is suspected to be the intense gravity of
a giant black hole. However, at the distances required for the study of Dark
Age, even quasars are extremely rare and faint.
Recently some members of Dr Becker's team announced their
discovery of the four most distant quasars known. All the new quasars are
terribly faint, a challenge that both teams overcame by peering at them
through one of twin telescopes in Hawaii. These are the world's largest, and
can therefore collect the most light. The new work by Dr Becker's team
analysed the light from all four quasars. Three of them appeared to be
similar to ordinary, less distant quasars. However, the fourth and most distant,
unlike any other quasar ever seen, showed unmistakable signs of being
shrouded in a fog of hydrogen gas. This gas is leftover material from the Big
Bang that did not condense into stars or quasars. It acts like fog because
new-born stars and quasars emit mainly ultraviolet light, and hydrogen gas
is opaque to ultraviolet. Seeing this fog had been the goal of would-be Dark
Age astronomers since 1965, when James Gunn and Bruce Peterson spelled
out the technique for causing quasars as backlighting beacons to observe
the fog's ultraviolet shadow.
The fog prolonged the period of darkness until the heat from the first
stars and quasars had the chance to ionise the hydrogen (breaking it into
its constituent parts, protons and electrons). Ionised hydrogen is transparent
to ultraviolet radiation, so at that moment the fog lifted and the universe
became the well-lit place it is today. For this reason, the end of the Dark Age
is called the "Epoch of Re-ionisation", because the ultraviolet shadow is
visible only in the most distant of the four quasars. Dr Becker's team concluded
that the fog had dissipated completely by the time the universe was about
900 million years old, and one-seventh of its current size.
66. In the passage, the Dark Age refers to:
( a) the period when the universe became cold after the Big Bang.
( b) a period about which astronomers know very little
( c) the medieval period when cultural activity seemed to have come
to an end.
( d) the time that the universe took to heat up after the Big-Bang.
67. Astronomers find it difficult to study the Dark Age because:
( a) suitable telescopes are few.
( b) the associated events took place aeons ago.
( c) the energy source that powers a quasar is unknown.
( d) their best chance is to study quasars, which are faint objects to
begin with.
68. The four most distant quasars discovered recently:
( a) could only be seen with quasars discovered recently.
( b) appear to be similar to other ordinary, quasars.
( c) appears to be shrouded in a fog of hydrogen gas.
( d) have been sought to be discovered by Dark Age astronomers
since 1965.
69. The fog of hydrogen gas seen through the telescopes:
( a) is transparent to hydrogen radiation from stars and quasars in
all states.
( b) was lifted after heat from stars and quasars ionised it.
( c) is material which eventually became stars and quasars.
( d) is broken into constituent elements when stars and quasars are
formed.
PASSAGE�V
Studies of factors governing reading development in young children
have achieved a remarkable degree of consensus over the past two decades.
This consensus concerns the causal role of phonological skills in young
children's reading progress. Children who have good phonological skills, or
good "phonological awareness", become good readers and good spellers.
Children with poor phonological skills progress more poorly. In particular,
those who have a specific phonological deficit are likely to be classified as
dyslexic by the time that they are 9 or 10 years old.
Phonological skills in young children can be measured at a number
of different levels. The term phonological awareness is a global one, and
refers to a deficit in recognising smaller units of sound within spoken
words. Development work has shown that this deficit can be at the level of
syllables. Of onsets and rimes, or of phonemes. For example, a 4-year old
child might have difficulty in recognising that a word like valentine has
three syllables, suggesting a lack of syllabic awareness. A 5-year-old might
have difficulty in recognising that the odd word out in the set of words fan,
cat, hat, mat is fan. This task requires an awareness of the sub-syllable
units of the onset and the rime. The onset corresponds to any initial
consonants in a syllable, and the rime corresponds to the vowel and to any
following consonants. Rimes correspond single-syllable words, and so the
rime in fan differs from the rime in cat, hat, and mat. In longer words, rime
and rhyme may differ. The onsets in valentine are/v/and/t/, and the rimes
correspond to the spelling patterns 'al', 'en', and 'ine'.
A 6-year-old might have difficulty in recognising that plea and may
begin with the same initial sound. This is a phonemic judgement. Although
the initial phoneme/p/is shared between the two words, in plea it is part of
the onset 'pr'. Until children can segment the onset (or the rime), such
phonemic judgements are difficult for them to make. In fact, a recent survey
of different developmental studies has shown that the different level of
phonological awareness appears to emerge sequentially. The awareness
of syllables, onsets, and rimes appears to emerge at around the ages of
3 and 4, long before most children go to school. The awareness of
phonemes, on the other hand, usually emerges at around the age of 5 or
6, when children have been taught to read for about a year. An awareness
of onsets and rimes thus appears to be a precursor of reading, whereas
an awareness of phonemes at every serial position in a word only appears
to develop as reading is taught. The onset-rime and phonemic levels of
phonological structure, however, are not distinct. Many onsets in English
are single phonemes, and so are some rimes ( e.g., sea, go, zoo).
The early availability of onsets and rimes is supported by studies that
have compared the development of phonological awareness of onsets,
rimes, and phonemes in the same subjects using the same phonological
awareness tasks. For example, a study by Treiman and Zudowski used a
same/different judgement task based on the beginning or the end sounds
of words. In the beginning sound task, the words either began with the
same onset, as in plea and plank, or shared only the initial phoneme, as
in plea and pray. In the end-sound task, the words either shared the entire
rime, as in spit and wit, or shared only the final phoneme, as in rat and wit.
Treiman and Zudowski showed that 4 and 5 year old children found the
onset-rime version of the same/different task significantly easier than the
version based on phonemes. Only the 6-year-olds, who had been learning
to read for about a year, were able to perform both versions of the tasks
with an equal level of success.
70. The single-syllable words Rhyme and Rime are constituted by
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the exact same set of:
A. Rime(s) B. Onset(s)
C. Rhyme(s) D. Phonemes(s)
( a) A, B (b) A, C
( c) A, B, C ( d) B, C, D
71. The Treiman and Zudowski experiment found evidence to support
the following:
( a) at age 6, reading instruction helps children perform, both, the
same-different judgement task.
( b) the development of onset-rime awareness precedes the
development of an awareness of phonemes.
( c) at age 4-5 children find the onset-rime version of the same/
different task significantly easier.
( d) the development of onset-rime awareness is a necessary and
sufficient condition for the development of an awareness of
phonemes.
72. A phonological deficit in which of the following is likely to be
classified as dyslexia?
( a) Phonemic judgement.
( b) Onset judgement.
( c) Rime judgement.
( d) Any one or more of the above.
73. From the following statements, pick out the true statement according
to the passage.
( a) A mono-syllabic word can have only one onset.
( b) A mono-syllabic word can have only one rhyme but more than
one rime.
( c) A mono-syllabic word can have only one phoneme.
( d) All of the above.
74. Which one of the following is likely to emerge last in the cognitive
development of a child?
( a) Rhyme ( b) Rime
( c) Onset ( d) Phoneme
PASSAGE�VI
Democracy rests on a tension between two different principles. There
is, on the one hand, the principle of equality before the law, or, more generally,
of equality, and, on the other, what may be described as the leadership
principle. The first gives priority to rules and the second to persons. No
matter how skilfully we contrive our schemes, there is a point beyond which
the one principle cannot be promoted without some sacrifice of the other.
Alexis de Tocqueville, the great nineteenth century writer on democracy,
maintained that the age of democracy, whose birth he was witnessing,
would also be the age of mediocrity; in saying this he was thinking primarily
of a regime of equality governed by impersonal rules. Despite his strong
attachment to democracy, he took great pains to point out what he believed
to be its negative side: a dead level plane of achievement in practically every
sphere of life. The age of democracy would, in his view, be an unheroic age;
there would not be room in it for either heroes of hero-worshippers.
But modern democracies have not been able to do without heroes: this
too was foreseen, with much misgiving, by Tocqueville. Tocqueville viewed
this with misgiving because he believed, rightly or wrongly, that unlike in
aristocratic societies there was no proper place in a democracy for heroes
and, hence, when they arose they would sooner or later turn into despots.
Whether they require heroes or not, democracies certainly require leaders,
and, in the contemporary age, bred them in great profusion; the problem is
to know what to do with them.
In a world preoccupied with scientific rationality the advantages of a
system based on an impersonal rule of law should be a recommendation
with everybody. There is something orderly and predictable about such a
system. When life is lived mainly in small, self-contained communities, men
are able to take finer personal distinctions into account in dealing with their
fellow men. They are unable to do this in a large and amorphous society,
and organised living would be impossible without a system of impersonal
rules. Above all, such a system guarantees a kind of equality to the extent
that everybody, no matter in what station of life, is bound by the same
explicit, often written, rules, and nobody is above them.
But a system governed solely by impersonal rules can at best ensure
order and stability; it cannot create any shining vision of a future in which
mere formal equality will be replaced by real equality and fellowship. A
world governed by impersonal rules cannot easily change itself, or when
it does, the change is so gradual as to make the basic and fundamental
feature of society appear unchanged. For any kind of basic or fundamental
change, a push is needed from within, a kind of individual initiative which
will create new rules, new terms and conditions of life.
The issue of leadership thus acquires crucial significance in the context
of change. If the modern age is preoccupied with scientific rationality, it is
no less preoccupied with change. To accept what exists on its own terms
is traditional, not modern, and it may be all very well to appreciate tradition
in music, dance and drama, but for society as a whole the choice has
already been made in favour of modernisation and development. Moreover,
in some countries the gap between ideal and reality has become so great
that the argument for development and change is now irresistible.
In these countries no argument for development has greater appeal
or urgency than the one which shows development to be the condition for
the mitigation, if not the elimination, of inequality. There is something
contradictory about the very present of large inequalities in a society
which professes to be democratic. It does not take people too long to
realise that democracy by itself can guarantee only formal equality; beyond
this, it can only whet people's appetite for real or substantive equality. From
this arises their continued preoccupation with plans and schemes that will
help to bridge the gap between the ideal of equality and the reality which
is so contrary to it. When pre-existing rules give no clear directions of
change, leadership comes into its own. Every democracy invests its
leadership with a measure of charisma, and expects from it a corresponding
measure of energy and vitality. Now, the greater the urge for change in a
society the stronger the appeal of a dynamic leadership in it. A dynamic
leadership seeks to free itself from the constraints of existing rules; in a
sense that is the test of its dynamism. In this process it may take a turn
at which it ceases to regard itself as being bound by these rules, placing
itself above them. There is always a tension between 'charisma' and
'discipline' in the case of a democratic leadership, and when this leadership
puts forward revolutionary claims, the tension tends to be resolved at the
expense of discipline. Characteristically, the legitimacy of such a leadership
rests on its claim to be able to abolish or at least substantially reduce the
existing inequalities in society. From the argument that formal equality or
equality before the law is but a limited good, it is often one short step to
the argument that it is a hindrance or an obstacle to the establishment of
real or substantive equality. The conflict between a 'progressive' executive
and a 'conservative' judiciary is but one aspect of this larger problem. This
conflict naturally acquires added piquancy when the executive is elected
and the judiciary appointed.
75. Which of the following four statements can be inferred from the
above passage?
A. There is conflict between the pursuit of equality and individuality.
B. The disadvantages of impersonal rules can be overcome in
small communities.
C. Despite limitations, impersonal rules are essential in large
systems.
D. Inspired leadership, rather than plans and schemes, is more
effective in bridging inequality.
( a) B, D but not A, C ( b) A, B but not C, D
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1011 JUNE 2002 THE COMPETITION MASTER
( c) A, D but not B, C ( d) A, C but not B, D
76. What possible factor would a dynamic leader consider a 'hindrance'
in achieving the development goals of a nation?
( a) Principle of equality before the law.
( b) Judicial activism.
( c) A conservative judiciary.
( d) Need for discipline.
77. Which of the following four statements can be inferred from the
above passage?
A. Scientific rationality is an essential feature of modernity.
B. Scientific rationality results in the development of impersonal
rules.
C. Modernisation and development have been chosen over traditional
music, dance and drama.
D. Democracies aspire to achieve substantive equality.
( a) A, B, D but not C ( b) A, B but not C, D
( c) A, D but not B, C ( d) A, B, C but not D
78. A key argument the author is making is that:
( a) in the context of extreme inequality, the issue of leadership has
limited significance.
( b) democracy is incapable of eradicating inequality.
( c) formal equality facilitates development and change.
( d) impersonal rules are good for avoiding instability but fall short of
achieving real equality.
79. Tocqueville believed that the age of democracy would be an unheroic
age because:
( a) democratic principles do not encourage heroes.
( b) there is no urgency for development in democratic countries.
( c) heroes that emerged in democracies would become despots.
( d) aristocratic society had a greater ability to produce heroes.
80. Dynamic leaders are needed in democracies because:
( a) they have adopted the principles of 'formal' equality rather than
'substantive' equality.
( b) 'formal' equality whets people's appetite for 'substantive' equality.
( c) systems that rely on the impersonal rules of 'formal' equality
loose their ability to make large changes.
( d) of the conflict between a 'progressive' executive and a
'conservative' judiciary.
Directions for questions 81 to 85: The sentence given in each
question, when properly sequenced, form a coherent paragraph. Each
sentence is labelled with a letter. Choose the most logical order of sentences
from among the given choices to construct a coherent paragraph.
81. A. Passivity is not, of course, universal.
B. In areas where there are no lords or laws, or in frontier zones
where all men go armed, the attitude of the peasantry may
well be different.
C. So indeed it may be on the fringe of the
unsubmissive.
D. However, for most of the soil-bound peasants the problem is
not whether to be normally passive or active, but when to
pass from one state to another.
( a) BDAC (b) CDAB
( c) DBAC ( d) ABCD
82. A. But in the industrial era destroying the enemy's productive
capacity means bombing the factories which are located in
the cities.
B. So in the agrarian era, if you need to destroy the enemy's
productive capacity, what you want to do is burn his fields,
or if you're really vicious, salt them.
C. Now in the information era, destroying the enemy's productive
capacity means destroying the information infrastructure.
D. How do you do battle with your enemy?
E. The idea is to destroy the enemy's productive capacity, and
depending upon the economic foundation, that productive
capacity is different in each case.
F. With regard to defence, the purpose of the military is to
defend the nation and be prepared to do battle with its enemy.
( a) FDEBAC ( b) FCABED
( c) DEBACF ( d) DFEBAC
83. A. Michael Hofman, a poet and translator, accepts this sorry fact
without approval or complaint.
B. But thanklessness and impossibility do not daunt him.
C. He acknowledges too�in fact he returns to the
point often�that best translators of poetry always fail at some
level.
D. Hofman feels passionately about his work, and this is clear
from his writings.
E. In terms of the gap between worth and reward, translators
come somewhere near nurses and street-cleaners.
( a) EACDB ( b) ADEBC
( c) EACBD ( d) DCEAB
84. A. Although there are large regional variations, it is not infrequent
to find a large number of people sitting here together and
doing nothing.
B. Once in office, they receive friends and relatives who feel
free to call any time without prior appointment.
C. While working, one is struck by the slow and clumsy actions
and reactions, indifferent attitudes. Procedure rather than
outcome orientation, and the lack of consideration for others.
D. Even those who are employed often come late to the office
and leave early unless they are forced to be punctual.
E. Work is not intrinsically valued in India.
F. Quite often people visit ailing friends and relatives
or go out of their way to help them in their personal
matters even during office hours.
( a) ECADBF ( b) EADCFB ( c) EADBFC ( d) ABFCBE
85. A. The situations in which violence occurs and the nature of that
violence tends to be clearly defined at least in theory, as in
the proverbial Irisman's question: 'Is this a private fight or can
anyone join in?'
B. So the actual risk to outsiders, though no doubt higher than
our societies, is calculable.
C. Probably the only uncontrolled applications of force are those
of social superiors to social inferiors and even here there are
probably some rules.
D. However, binding the obligation to kill, members or feuding
families engaged in mutual massacre will be genuinely
appalled if by some mischance a bystander or outsider is
killed.
( a) DABC ( b) ACDB ( c) CBAD ( d) DBAC
Directions for questions 86 to 90: Each of the words below, a
contextual usage is provided. Pick the word from the alternatives given that
is most inappropriate in the given context.
86. Disuse: Some words fall into disuse as technology makes objects
obsolete.
( a) Unused ( b) Outdated
( c) Misuse ( d) Obsolescence
87. Facetious: When I suggested that war is a method of controlling
population, my father remarked that I was being facetious.
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( a) Jovian ( b) Jovial
( c) Jocular ( d) Joking
88. Specious: A specious argument is not simply a false one but one
that has the ring of truth.
( a) Deceitful ( b) Fallacious
( c) Credible ( d) Deceptive
89. Parsimonious: The evidence was constructed from very
parsimonious scraps of information.
( a) Frugal ( b) Penurious
( c) Thrifty ( d) Altruistic
90. Obviate: The new mass transit system may obviate the need for
the use of personal cars:
( a) Prevent ( b) Forestall
( c) Preclude ( d) Bolster
Directions for questions 91 to 95: For the word given at the top,
match the dictionary definitions (A, B, C, D) with their corresponding usage
given (E, F, G, H). Out of the four possibilities given below select the one
that has all the definitions and their usages correctly matched.
91. Exceed
Dictionary Definition
A. To extend outside of or enlarge beyond used chiefly in strictly
physical relations
B. To be greater than or superior to
C. Be beyond the comprehension of
D. To go beyond a limit set by (as an authority or privilege)
Usage
E. The mercy of god exceeds our finite minds
F. Their accomplishments exceeded our expectation
G. He exceed his authority when he paid his brother's gambling
debts with money from the trust
H. If this rain keeps up, the river will exceed its banks by morning
( a) A�H B�F C�E D�G
( b) A�H B�E C�F D�G
( c) A�G B�F C�E D�H
( d) A�F B�G C�H D�E
92. Infer
Dictionary Definition
A. To derive by reasoning or implication
B. To surmise
C. To point out
D. To hint
Usage
E. We see smoke and infer fire
F. Given some utterance, a listener may infer from it things which the
utterer never implied
G. I waited all day to meet him, from this you can infer my zeal to see
him
H. She did not take part in the debate except to ask a question
inferring that she was not interested in the debate
( a) A�G B�H C�E D�F
( b) A�F B�H C�E D�G
( c) A�H B�G C�F D�E
( d) A�E B�F C�G D�H
93. Mellow
Dictionary Definition
A. Adequately and properly ages so as to be free of harshness
B. Freed from the rashness of youth
C. Of soft and loamy consistency
D. Rich and full but free from stridency
Usage
E. He has mellowed with age
F. The tones of the old violin were mellow.
G. Some wines are mellow
H. Mellow soil is found in the Gangetic plains
( a) A�E B�G C�F D�H
( b) A�E B�F C�G D�H
( c) A�G B�E C�H D�F
( d) A�H B�G C�F D�E
94. Relief
Dictionary Definition
A. Removal or lightening of something distressing
B. Aid in the form of necessities for the indigent
C. Diversion
D. Release from the performance of duty
Usage
E. A ceremony follows the relief of a sentry after the morning shift
F. It was a relief to take off the tight shoes
G. The only relief I get is by playing cards
H. Disaster relief was offered to the victims
( a) A�F B�H C�E D�G
( b) A�F B�H C�G D�E
( c) A�H B�F C�G D�E
( d) A�G B�E C�H D�F
95. Purge
Dictionary Definition
A. Remove a stigma from the name of
B. Make clean by removing whatever is superfluous, foreign
C. Get rid of
D. To cause evacuation of
Usage
E. The opposition was purged after the coup
F. The committee heard his attempt to purge himself of a charge of
heresy.
G. Drugs that purge the bowels are often bad for the brain
H. It is recommended to purge water by distillation
( a) A�E B�G C�F D�H
( b) A�F B�E C�H D�G
( c) A�H B�F C�G D�E
( d) A�F B�H C�E D�G
Directions for questions 96 to 100: In each of the following
sentences, parts of the sentence are left blank. Beneath each sentence,
four different ways of completing the sentence are indicated. Choose the
best alternative from among the four.
96. But______are now regularly written to describe well-established
practices, organisations and institutions, not all of which seem to
be_____away.
( a) reports, withering ( b) stories, trading
( c) books, dying ( d) obituaries, fading
97. The Darwin who_____is most remarkable for the way in which
he_____the attributes of the world class thinker and head of the household.
( a) comes, figures ( b) arises, adds
( c) emerges, combines ( d) appeared, combines
98. Since her face was free of_______there was no way to_____if
she appreciated what had happened.
( a) make-up, realise ( b) expression, ascertain
( c) emotion, diagnose ( d) scars, understand
99. In this context, the______of the British labour movement is
particularly________.
( a) affair, weird ( b) activity, moving
( c) experience, significant ( d) atmosphere, gloomy
100. Indian intellectuals may boast, if they are so inclined, of
being_____to the most elitist among the intellectual _____of the world.
( a) subordinate, traditions ( b) heirs, cliques
( c) ancestors, societies ( d) heir, traditions
MANAGEMENT
1013 JUNE 2002 THE COMPETITION MASTER
SECTION�3
No. of Questions 50
Directions for questions 101 to 107 : Answer each of the questions
independent of each other.
101. Four friends Ashok, Bashir, Chirag and Deepak are out shopping.
Ashok has less money than three times the amount that Bashir has. Chirag
has more money than Bashir. Deepak has an amount equal to the difference
of amounts with Bashir and Chirag. Ashok has three times the money with
Deepak. They each have to buy at least one shirt, or one shawl, or one
sweater, or one jacket, that are priced Rs 200, Rs 400, Rs 600 and Rs 1000
apiece, respectively. Chirag borrows Rs 300 from Ashok and buys a jacket.
Bashir buys a sweater after borrowing Rs 100 from Ashok and is left with
no money. Ashok buys three shirts. What is the costliest item that Deepak
could buy with his own money?
( a) A shirt ( b) A shawl
( c) A sweater ( d) A jacket
102. In a family gathering there are two males who are grandfathers
and four males who are fathers. In the same gathering there are two females
who are grandmothers and four females who are mothers. There is at least
one grandson or a grand-daughter present in this gathering. There are two
husband-wife pairs in this group. These can either be a grandfather and a
grandmother, or a father and a mother. The single grandfather (whose wife
is not present) has two grandsons and a son present. The single grandmother
(whose husband is not present) has two grand-daughters and a daughter
present. A grandfather or a grandmother present with their spouses does
not have any grandson or grand-daughter present. What is the minimum
number of people present in this gathering?
( a) 10 (b) 12
( c) 14 (d) 16
103. Eight people carrying food baskets are going for a picnic on
motorcycles. Their names are A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H. They have four
motorcycles M1, M2, M3 and M4 among them. They also have four food
baskets O, P, Q and R of different size and shapes and which can be carried
only on motorcycles M1, M2, M3 or M4 respectively. No more than two
persons can travel on a motorcycle and no more than one basket can be
carried on a motorcycle. There are two husband-wife pairs in this group of
eight people and each pair will ride on a motorcycle together. C cannot travel
with A or B. E cannot travel with B or F. G cannot travel with F, or H, or D.
The husband-wife pairs must carry baskets O and P. Q is with A and P is
with D. F travels on M1 and E travels on M2 motorcycles. G is with Q, and
B cannot go with R. Who is travelling with H?
( a) A (b) B
( c) C (d) D
104. I have a total of Rs 1000. Item A costs Rs 110, item B costs Rs
90, item C costs Rs 70, item D costs Rs 40 and item E costs Rs 45. For
every item D that I purchase, I must also buy two of item B. For every item
A, I must buy one of item C. For every item E, I must also buy two of item
D and one of item B. For every time purchased I earn 1000 points and for
every rupee not spent I earn a penalty of 150 points. My objective is to
maximise the points I earn. What is the number of items that I must purchase
to maximise my points?
( a) 13 (b) 14
( c) 15 ( d) 16
105. On her walk through the park, Hamsa collected 50 coloured
leaves, all either maple or oak. She sorted them by category when she got
home, and found the following:
The number of red oak leaves with spots is even and positive.
The number of red oak leaves without any spot equals the number
of red maple leaves without spots. All non-red oak leaves have spots, and
there are five times as many of them as there are red spotted oak leaves.
There are no spotted maple leaves that are not red.
There are exactly 6 red spotted maple leaves.
There are exactly 22 maple leaves that are neither spotted nor red.
How many oak leaves did she collect?
( a) 22 (b) 17
( c) 25 (d) 18
106. A King has unflinching loyalty from eight of his ministers M1 to
M8, but he has to select only four to make a cabinet committee. He decides
to choose these four such that each selected person shares a liking with
at least one of the other three selected. The selected persons must also
hate atleast one of the liking of any of the other three persons selected.
M1 likes fishing and smoking, but hates gambling.
M2 likes smoking and drinking, but hates fishing.
M3 likes gambling, but hates smoking.
M4 likes mountaineering, but hates drinking.
M5 likes drinking, but hates smoking and mountaineering.
M6 likes fishing, but hates smoking and mountaineering.
M7 likes gambling and mountaineering, but hates fishing, and
M8 likes smoking and gambling, but hates mountaineering.
Who are the four people selected by the king?
( a) M1, M2, M5, M6
( b) M3, M4, M5, M6
( c) M4, M5, M6, M8
( d) M1, M2, M4, M7
107. In a "keep-fit" gymnasium class there are fifteen females enrolled
in a weight-loss program. They all have been grouped in any one of the five
weight-groups W1, W2, W3, W4, or W5. One instructor is assigned to one
weight-group only. Sonali, Shalini, Shubhra, and Shahira belong to the
same weight-group. Sonali and Rupa are in one weight-group, Rupali and
Renuka are also in one weight-group. Rupa, Radha, Renuka, Ruchika, and
Ritu belong to different weight-groups. Somya cannot be with Ritu, and
Tara cannot be with Radha. Komal cannot be with Radha, Somya, or Ritu.
Shahira is in W1 and Somya is in W4 with Ruchika. Sweta and Jyotika
cannot be with Rupali, but are in a weight-group with total membership of
four. No weight-group can have more than five or less than one member.
Amita, Babita, Chandrika, Deepika, and Elina are instructors of weightgroups
with membership sizes 5, 4, 3, 2 and 1, respectively. Who is the
instructor of Radha?
( a) Babita ( b) Elina
( c) Chandrika ( d) Deepika
Directions for questions 108-110: Answer the following questions
based on the passage below:
A group of three or four has to be selected from seven persons.
Among the seven are two women, Fiza and Kavita, and five men: Ram,
Shyam, David, Peter and Rahim. Ram would not like to be in the group if
Shyam is also selected. Shyam and Rahim want to be selected together
in the group. Kavita would like to be in the group only if David is also there.
David, if selected, would not like Peter in the group. Ram would like to be
in the group only if Peter is also there. David insists that Fiza be selected
in case he is there in the group.
108. Which of the following statements is true?
( a) Kavita and Ram can be part of a group of four.
( b) A group of four can have two women.
( c) A group of four can have all four men.
( d) None of the above.
109. Which of the following is a feasible group of four?
( a) Ram, Peter, Fiza, Rahim
( b) Shyam, Rahim, Kavita, David
( c) Shyam, Rahim, Fiza, David
( d) Fiza, David, Ram, Peter
110. Which of the following is a feasible group of three?
( a) David, Ram, Rahim
( b) Peter, Shyam, Rahim
( c) Kavita, David, Shyam
MANAGEMENT
1014 JUNE 2002 THE COMPETITION MASTER
( d) Fiza, David, Ram
Directions for questions 111-112: Answer the following questions
based on the information given below:
Elle is three times older than Yogesh, Zaheer is half the age of Wahida.
Yogesh is older than Zaheer.
111. Which of the following information will be sufficient to estimate
Elle's age?
( a) Zaheer is 10 years old.
( b) Both Yogesh and Wahida are older than Zaheer by the same
number of years.
( c) Both ( a) and ( b) above.
( d) None of the above.
112. Which of the following can be inferred?
( a) Yogesh is older than Wahida.
( b) Elle is older than Wahida.
( c) Elle may be younger than Wahida.
( d) None of the above.
Directions for questions 113 to 116: A and B are two sets (e.g.
A = mothers, B = women). The elements that could belong to both the sets
(e.g. women who are mothers) is given by the set C = A.B. The elements
which could belong to either A or B, or both, is indicated by the set D = AOB.
A set that does not contain any elements is known as a null set, represented
by @(for example, if none of the women in the set B is a mother, then
C = A.B. is a null set, or C = @. Let 'V' signify the set of all vertebrates; 'M'
the set of all mammals; 'D' dogs; 'F' fish; 'A' Alsatian and 'P' a dog named
Pluto.
113. If P.A. = @ and POA = D, then which of the following is true?
( a) Pluto and Alsatian are dogs
( b) Pluto is an Alsatian
( c) Pluto is not an Alsatian
( d) D is a null set.
114. If y = FO (D.V.) is not a null set, it implies that:
( a) All fish are vertebrates.
( b) All dogs are vertebrates.
( c) Some fish are dogs.
( d) None of the above.
115. If Z = (P.D.) OM, then
( a) The elements of Z consist of Pluto the dog or any other mammal.
( b) Z implies any dog or mammal.
( c) Z implies Pluto or any dog that is a mammal.
( d) Z is a null set.
116. Given that X = M.D. is such that X = D, which of the following is
true?
( a) All dogs are mammals.
( b) Some dogs are mammals.
( c) X = @
( d) All mammals are dogs.
Directions for question 117 to 120: Answer the questions
independent of each other.
117. At a village mela, the following six nautankis (plays) are schedule
as shown in the table below:
Nautanki Duration Show times
1. Sati Savitri 1 hour 9.00 am and 2.00 pm
2. Joru ka Gulam 1 hour 10.30 am and 11.30 am
3. Sunder Kand 30 minutes 10.00 am and 11.00 am
4. Veer Abhimanyu 1 hour 10.00 am and 11.00 am
5. Reshma aur Shera 1 hour 9.30 am, 12.00 noon
and 2.00 pm
6. Jhansi ki Rani 30 minutes 11.00 am and 1.30 pm
You wish to see all the six nautankis. Further you wish to ensure that
you get a lunch break from 12.30 p.m. to 1.30 p.m.
Which of the following ways can you do this?
( a) Sati-Savitri is viewed first; Sunder Kand is viewed third and
Jhansi ki Rani is viewed last.
( b) Sati-Savitri is viewed last; Sunder Kand is viewed third and
Jhansi ki Rani is viewed last.
( c) Sati-Savitri is viewed first; Sunder Kand is viewed third and
Joru ka Gulam is viewed fourth.
( d) Veer Abhimanyu is viewed third; Reshma aur Shera is viewed
fourth and Jhansi ki Rani is viewed fifth.
118. While Balbir had his back turned, a dog ran into his butcher
shop, snatched a piece of meat off the counter and ran off. Balbir was mad
when he realised what had happened. He asked three other shopkeepers,
who had seen the dog, to describe it. The shopkeepers really didn't want
to help Balbir. So each of them made a statement which contained one
truth and one lie.
Shopkeeper Number 1 said : "The dog had black hair and a long
tail."
Shopkeeper Number 2 said : "The dog had a short tail and wore
a collar."
Shopkeeper Number 3 said : "The dog had white hair and no collar."
Based on the above statements, which of the following could be a
correct description?
( a) The dog had white hair, short tail and no collar.
( b) The dog had white hair, long tail and a collar.
( c) The dog had black hair, long tail and a collar.
( d) The dog had black hair, long tail and no collar.
119. The Bannerjees, the Sharmas and the Pattabhiramans each
have a tradition of eating Sunday lunch as a family. Each family serves a
special meal at a certain time of day. Each family has a particular set of
chinaware used only for this meal. Use the clues below to answer the
following question.
The Sharma family eats at noon.
The family that serves fried brinjal uses blue chinaware.
The Bannerjee family eats at 2 o'clock.
The family that serves sambar does not use red chinaware.
The family that eats at 1 o'clock serves fried brinjal.
The Pattabhiraman family does not use white chinaware.
The family that eats last likes makki-ki-roti.
Which one of the following statements is true?
( a) The Bannerjees eat makki-ki-roti at 2 o' clock, the Sharmas eat
fried brinjal at 12 o' clock and the Pattabhiramans eat sambar
from red chinaware.
( b) The Sharmas eat sambar served in white chinaware, the
Pattabhiramans eat fried brinjal at 1 o' clock and the Bannerjees
eat makki-ki-roti in blue chinaware.
( c) The Sharmas eat sambhar at noon. The Pattabhiramans eat
fried brinjal served in blue chinaware and the Bannerjees eat
makki-ki-roti served in red chinaware.
( d) The Bannerjees eat makki-ki-roti served in white chinaware,
the Sharmas eat fried brinjal at 12 o'clock and the
Pattabhiramans eat sambar from red chinaware.
120. Mrs Ranga has three children and has difficulty remembering
their ages and the months of their birth. The clues below may help her
remember.
( a) The boy, who was born in June, is 7 years old.
( b) One of the children is 4 years old, but is not Anshuman.
( c) Vaibhav is older than Supriya.
( d) One of the children was born in September but it was not
Vaibhav.
( e) Supriya's birthday is in April.
( f) The youngest child is only 2 years old.
Based on the above clues, which one of the following statements is
true?
MANAGEMENT
1015 JUNE 2002 THE COMPETITION MASTER
121. What percentage of top ten busiest airports is in the United
States of America?
( a) 60 (b) 80
( c) 70 (d) 90
122. How many international airports of type 'A' account for more
than 40 million passengers?
( a) 4 (b) 5
( c) 6 (d) 7
123. How many international airports of type 'A' account for more
than 40 million passengers?
( a) 5 (b) 6
( c) 10 (d) 14
124. Of the five busiest airports, roughly what percentage of
passengers is handled by Heathrow airport?
( a) 30 (b) 40
( c) 20 (d) 50
Directions for questions 125-127: Answer these questions based
on the pipeline diagram below.
The following sketch shows the pipelines carrying material from one
location to another. Each location has a demand for material. The demand
at Vaishali is 400, at Mathura is 400, at Jhampur is 700 and at Vidisha is
200. Each arrow indicates the direction of material flow through the pipeline.
The flow from Vaishali to Mathura is 300; the quantity of material flow is
such that the demands at all these locations are exactly met. The capacity
of each pipeline is 1000.
( a) Vaibhav is the oldest, followed by Anshuman who was born in
September, and the youngest is Supriya who was born in April.
( b) Anshuman is the oldest being born in June, followed by Supriya
who is 4-year old, and the youngest is Vaibhav who is 2 years
old.
125. What is the free capacity available in the Avanti-Vidisha Pipeline?
( a) 300 ( b) 200
( c) 100 ( d) 0
126. What is the extra capacity available from Avanti to Vaishali?
( a) 0 (b) 100
( c) 200 ( d) 300
127. The quantity moved from Avanti to Vidisha is?
( a) 200 ( b) 800
( c) 700 ( d) 1000
Directions for questions 128 to 130: The questions based on the
pie charts given below:
Chart 1 shows the distribution of twelve million tonnes of crude oil
transport through different modes over a specific period of time. Chart 2
shows the distribution of the cost of transporting this crude oil. The total
cost was Rs 30 million.
( c) Vaibhav is the oldest being 7 years old, followed by Supriya
who was born in April, and the youngest is Anshuman who
was born in September.
( d) Supriya is the oldest, who was born in April, followed by Vaibhav
who was born in June, and Anshuman who was born in
September.
Directions for questions 121 to 124: Answer these questions based on the table given below concerning the busiest twenty international airports
in the world.
No. Name International Code Location Passengers
Airport type
1. Harstfield A ATL Atlanta, Georgia, USA 77939536
2. Chicago-O'Hare A ORD Chicago, Illinois, USA 72568076
3. Los Angeles A LAX Los Angeles, California, USA 63876561
4. Heathrow Airport E LHR London, United Kingdom 62263710
5. DFW A DFW Dallas/ft. Worth, Texas, USA 60000125
6. Hander Airport F HND Tokyo, Japan 54338212
7. Frankfurt Airport E FRA Frankfurt, Germany 45858315
8. Rouse-Charles de Gaulle E CDG Paris, France 43596943
9. San Francisco A SFO San Francisco, California, USA 40387422
10. Denver A DIA Denver, Colorado, USA 38034231
11. Amsterdam Schipol E AMS Amsterdam, Netherlands 36781015
12. Minneapolis-St. Paul A MSP Minneapolis-St. Paul, USA 34216331
13. Detroit Metropolitan A DTW Detroit, Michigan, USA 34038381
14. Miami A MIA Miami, Florida, USA 33899246
15. Newark A EWR Newark, New Jersey, USA 33814000
16. McCarran A LAS Las Vegas, Nevada, USA 33669185
17. Phoenix Sky harbor A PHX Phoenix, Arizona, USA 33533353
18. Kimpo FE SEL Seoul, Korea 33371074
19. George Bush A IAH Houston, Texas, USA 33089333
20. John F. Kennedy A JFK New York, New York, USA 32003000
MANAGEMENT
1016 JUNE 2002 THE COMPETITION MASTER
Volume Transported
Cost of Transported
128. If the cost per tonne of transport by ship, air and road are
represented by P, Q and R respectively, which of the following is true?
( a) R > Q > P
( b) P > R > Q
( c) P > Q > R
( d) R > P > Q
129. The cost in rupees per tonne of oil moved by rails and happens
to be roughly:
( a) 3 (b) 1.5
( c) 4.5 ( d) 8
130. From the charts given, it appears that the cheapest mode of
transport is:
( a) Road ( b) Rail
( c) Pipeline ( d) Ship
Directions for questions 131 to 137: Each item is followed by two
statements, A and B. Answer each question using the following instructions.
Choose ( a) if the question can be answered by one of the statements
alone and not by the other.
Choose ( b) if the question can be answered by using either statement
alone.
Choose ( c) if the question can be answered by using both the statements
together, but cannot be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose ( d) if the question cannot be answered even by using both
statements together.
131. Two friends, Ram and Gopal, bought apples from a wholesale
dealer. How many apples did they buy?
A. Ram bought one-half the number of apples that Gopal bought.
B. The wholesale dealer had a stock of 500 apples.
132. Is country X's GDP higher than country Y's GDP?
A. GDPs of the countries X and Y have grown over the past five
years at compounded annual rate of 5% and 6% respectively.
B. Five years ago, GDP of country X was higher than that of country
Y.
133. What is the value of X?
A. X and Y are unequal even integers, less than 10, and
X
Y
is an odd
integer.
B. X and Y are even integers, each less than 10, and product of X
and Y is 12.
134. On a given day a boat ferried 1500 passengers across the river
in twelve hours. How many round trips did it make?
A. The boat can carry two hundred passengers at any time.
B. It takes 40 minutes each way and 20 minutes of waiting time at
each terminal.
135. What will be the time for downloading software?
A. Transfer rate if 6 Kilobytes per second.
B. The size of the software is 4.5 megabytes.
136. A square is inscribed in a circle. What is the difference between
the area of the circle and that of the square?
A. The diameter of the circle is
25
2
cm
B. The side of the square is 25 cm.
137. What are the values of m and n?
A. n is an even integer, m is an odd integer, and m is greater
than n.
B. Product of m and n is 30.
Directions for questions 138 to 140: Answer these questions based
on the data given below:
There are six companies, 1 through 6. All of these companies use
six operations, A through F. The following graph shows the distribution of
efforts put in by each company in these six operations.
138. Suppose effort allocation is inter-changed between operations
B and C, then C and D, and then D and E. If companies are then ranked
in ascending order of effort, which company would be at third rank?
( a) 2 (b) 3
( c) 4 (d) 5
139. Suppose the companies find that they can remove operations
B, C and D and re-distribute the effort released equally among the remaining
operations. Then, which operation will show the maximum across all
companies and all operations?
( a) Operation E in company 1
( b) Operation E in company 4
( c) Operation F in company 5
( d) Operation E in company 5
140. A new technology is introduced in company 4 such that the
total effort for operations B through F get evenly distributed among these.
What is the change in the percentage of effort in operation E?
( a) Reduction of 12.3
( b) Increase of 12.3
( c) Reduction of 5.6
( d) Increase of 5.6
Directions for questions 141 to 146: Answer these questions based
on the two graphs shown below:
Figure 1 show the amount of work distribution, in man-hours for a
software company between offshore and onsite activities. Figure 2 shows
MANAGEMENT
1017 JUNE 2002 THE COMPETITION MASTER
the estimated and actual work effort involved in the different offshore activities
in the same company during the same period. ( Note: Onsite refers to work
performed at the customer's premise and offshore refers to work performed
at the developer's premise.)
141. If 50 per cent of the offshore work to be carried out onsite, with
the distribution of effort between the tasks remaining the same, which of the
following is true of all work carried out onsite?
( a) The amount of coding done is greater than that of testing.
( b) The amount of coding done onsite is less than that of design
done onsite.
( c) The amount of design carried out onsite is greater than that of
testing.
( d) The amount of testing carried out offshore is greater than that
of total design.
142. Roughly what percentage of total work is carried on site?
( a) 40 (b) 20
( c) 30 (d) 50
143. The total effort in hours onsite is nearest to which of the following?
( a) Sum of estimated and actual effort for offshore design.
( b) The estimated man-hours of offshore coding.
( c) The actual man-hours of offshore testing
( d) Half the no. of estimated man-hours of offshore coding.
144. If the total working hours were 100 which of the following tasks
will account for approx 50 hours:
( a) coding
( b) design
( c) offshore testing
( d) offshore design
145. If 50 per cent of the offshore work to be carried out onsite, with
the distribution of effort between the tasks remaining the same, the
percentage of testing carried out offshore would be:
( a) 40% ( b) 30%
( c) 50% ( d) 70%
146. Which of the work requires as many man hours as that spent in
coding?
( a) Offshore, design and coding
( b) Offshore coding
( c) Testing
( d) Offshore testing and coding
ANSWERS
61. ( a) Inverted representations have often been employed as balm
for the forsaken (directly stated).
62. ( a) The reference is to make the social inequities well known (reverse
globalisation).
63. ( b) The argument is about whether caste is admissible into the
agenda, hence (b). Also mentioned in the beginning of the
second para.
64. ( c) Second paragraph�"all subsequent distinctions are constructed
ones".
65. ( b) Racial and related discrimination�first line.
66. ( b) The ignorance of astronomers....
67. ( d) Mentioned in the third paragraph.
68. ( a) Can best be done by eliminating choices b, c and d.
69. ( c) Leftover material that did not condense into stars or quasars.
70. ( d) The words have the same outset, rhyme and phoneme.
71. ( c) Directly stated in the second last line.
72. ( d) It is stated that any deficit could lead to dyslexia.
73. ( c) Stated in the passage.
74. ( d) Than the version based on phonemes (last paragraph).
75. ( c) Statements A and B can be inferred from the first three paragraphs.
But the author does not say about C or D.
76. ( c) Second last line states this.
77. ( c) A and D can be inferred (last paragraph).
78. ( d) Directly stated "But a system...."
79. ( a) Directly stated in the second paragraph.
80. ( c) Directly stated in the last paragraph.
81. ( a) Those the most logically related sentences.
82. ( a) 83. ( c) 84. ( a) 85. ( b)
86. ( a) Some words stop being used
87. ( d) Non serious
88. ( d) False, but as a ring of truth: deceptive.
89. ( a) Very little, frugal.
90. ( a) 91. ( b) 92. ( d) 93. ( c) 94. ( b)
95. ( d) 96. ( a) 97. ( c) 98. ( b) 99. ( c)
100. ( d)
SECTION�3
101. ( b) We know A < 3B,C > B, D = C � B and A = 3D. B must have 500,
since he has to borrow 100 from A. C must have at least 700,
but this is not correct as this leaves D with 200 and A with 600.
Since A lends 300 to C and 100 to B, A must have at least 1000
since A = 3D, we get A = 1200, D = 400, hence D can buy one
shawl.
102. ( b) There are 6 males and 6 females. Hence the minimum number
of people present can be 6 + 6 = 12.
103. ( c) We get the following table which satisfies all the given conditions.
M1 M2 M3 M4
O P Q R
FB DE AG CH
104. ( b) We must maximise the number of items and minimise the balance
money. By hit and trial, we must buy 2(E + 2D + B) and 2(D +
2B) = 2 � 215 + 2 � 220 = 870 which leaves 130, the minimum
amount. Note that we must buy the cheapest combination, which
is E + 2D + B, in order to maximise the number of items
purchased.
105. ( b) We have 22 + 6 = 28 maple leaves. The red spotted oak leaves
must be 2 and non-red spotted maple not red = 0, this means
that red maple without spots must be 5, which is equal to the
red oak leaves without spots. Total oak leaves = 10 + 2 + 7 = 17.
106. ( d) Likings: M1 = F + S; M2 = S + D; M5 = D, M6 = F. At least one
liking is shared. Dislikes: M1 = G, M2 = F, M5 = 5 + M, M6 = 5
+ M. Since G is not in the liking list, choice ( a) is wrong. Continue
checking. Only M1, M2, M4 and M7 (liking = F + S + D + M +
MANAGEMENT
1018 JUNE 2002 THE COMPETITION MASTER
G, dislike = G + F + D + F) meets all the requirements.
107. ( b) Radha cannot be in W1 or with Tara or Komal. This leaves her to
be in the group with membership 1, so Elina is her instructor.
108. ( d) The group of 4 cannot be made with the conditions, except
S + R + F + D.
109. ( c) From the above.
110. ( b) In all the other choices we have D, who insist that F be with him.
111. ( c) We have E = 3Y, Z =
1
2
W, Y > Z. To find E, we must know Y, hence
both statements are needed.
112. ( b) Y could be 11, 12, ... hence the minimum age of E can be 33.
Since W = 20, we can infer that E > W.
113. ( a) P.A = @ implies P into is not an Alsatian, but POA = D implies both
P and A are dogs.
114. ( c) Fish ∪ (Dogs ∩ Vertebrate) ≠ @ implies that some elements
are common between Fish and Dogs.
115. ( a) Z = (Pluto ∩ Dogs) ∪ Mammals = Pluto ∪ Mammals.
116. ( a) X = Mammals ∩ Dogs = Dogs, hence dogs are mammals.
117. ( c) 9-10: SS, 10-11: VA, 11-11.30: SK, 11.30-12.30 : JK; 12.30-1.30:
Lunch; 1.30-2: JKG; 2-3: RS.
118. ( b) Make truth tables as follows: Case I: The dog has black hair.
a) Black hair�short tail
b) Short tail�not wearing collar
c) Black hair�not wearing collar
Case II: The dog has white hair.
a) White hair�long tail
b) Long tail�wore a collar
c) White hair�wore a collar
Now check the choices. Only (b) is correct as per the above.
119. ( c) We get the following table.
12 1 2
Sharma Patti Banerjee
Sambar Brinjal Makki
White Blue Red
120. ( c) Supriya�April�4; Vaibhav�June�7; Anshuman�September�
2.
121. ( c) There are 14 out of 20 busiest airports which are from USA =
70%.
122. ( b) 1, 2, 3, 5, 9 = 5 airports.
123. ( b) Count the A's in the top 10.
124. ( c)
62
336
= 20% approx.
125. ( d) Avanti-Vidisha carries 300 + 700 for Panchal, free capacity = 0
126. ( d) Avanti-Vaishali carries 700; spare capacity = 300.
127. ( d) Avanti-Vidisha: full capacity.
128. ( c) Calculate the cost by ship, air and road.
P =
3
108 .
= 2.77; Q =
210
132
.
.
= 1.58; R =
180
264
.
.
= 0.68
Hence P > Q > R.
129. ( a)
360
108
.
.
= 3.33.
130. ( a) Road is the cheapest, from Q. 132.
131. ( d) We cannot find out how many apples they bought, even from the
two statements.
132. ( d) We do not know the base figures, hence cannot come to a
conclusion.
133. ( b) We can get X = 6 from either statement.
134. ( a) Only the second statement gives the time, hence total number of
trips can be found out.
135. ( c) We need both statements to find out the time required.
136. ( b) The area of square and circle can be found out using either
statement.
137. ( c) We have three cases: 15, 2; 10, 3 and 6, 5. Using both statements,
we zero in on the first one.
138. ( b) Interchange the times between B and E. Then arrange in
ascending order.
139. ( d) In company 5,
(B C D)
3
+ +
=
36 8
3
.
= 12.3.
Add to E = 28.6 + 12.3 = 40.9 which is the highest.
140. ( a) Total reduction =
817
5
.
= 16.3
Reduction = 28.6 � 16.3 = 12.3.
141. ( a) Distribute 50% of the work and we find that coding > testing.
142. ( c)
(80 )
( )
+ +
+ +
100 150
180 520 430 =
330
1130
= 30%
143. ( c) Total onsite hours: 440, which is equal to off-shore testing.
144. ( b)
800
2
= 400 hours. Only coding comes equal to this figure.
145. ( b)
140
330
33% =
146. ( b) Visual question.
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